Trading with Coinflip Accuracy!! - Page 2
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Thread: Trading with Coinflip Accuracy!!

  1. #11
    Where going to be closing the coinflipping portion of the ribbon, and heres why (Darn!) .

    Probabilities state that coinflipping is only 50/50 if the process is unlimited and im not, makes sense. So during a sequence of state, 1,012,345 flips, following 12,345 flips we could possibly run to a million flip loss (not my rather odds).

    What do we reap out of this thread, Erik?

    That through a few standard technical analysis we can skew the Probabilities ( I know, I know) in our favor without the possobility of a million commerce dry series.

    What will be your next experiment?

    TBD

  2. #12
    But what if you coinflipped 15 different pairs/multiple timeframes and or both together with the proper capital%? Is it worth exploring?

  3. #13
    There's to become a point where, with the right quantity of commerce setups, risk/reward ratio, so it would be so improbable that you would consistently lose, which it may be worth trying.

  4. #14

  5. #15

  6. #16
    Its the Ying Yang twins, more to follow.

    Goodnight

  7. #17
    Not trying to meddle. . I believe you should continue your original experiment. But something you can try-

    maybe try a straddle. . So you put a buy stop, state 30 pips over the open along with a market stop 30 pips below the open. .

    Place tp's and sl's for both orders and away you go. ( or don't have any tp and let them operate for 24 hours)

    ive already been backtesting/forward demo testing that for many months on different pairs with distinct sl's,tp's as well as opening times.

    It's hugely profitable whenever the markets are trending and mildy profitable when they are choppy. .

  8. #18
    Dont be worried about meddling, its a forum to share thoughts. Continue reading this Physics Post(s) and tell me what you gather, http://www.physicsforums.com/archive...hp/t-7832.html

  9. #19
    I believe this could have greater impliions for a semi-scalping egy.

  10. #20
    Originally posted by Verasace
    You may observe similair results however frequently you conduct the analysis, and regardless of where you start your count from as long as you have a high number of throws (random numbers)
    What you're graphing is called a one-dimensional random walk. You will only acquire 50% heads and 50% tails in the limit as your sample size approaches infinity. This is actually the definition of probability.
    So the general odds are 50/50, but those odds are relevant upon where you are on the tide.
    Wrong. The probability is exactly 50%, all the time, as described previously. If you had an infinite sample, then you would have just 50% heads and 50% tails. This does not signify that any finite sample will have 50% heads and 50% tails, nevertheless. Naturally, as your sample size reduces to a single sample, it clearly is either 100% heads or 100% tails.

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